A student proposed to me the following strong form of König’s lemma:
Conjecture. Suppose that
- for all
, is finite (but nonempty); - for all two distinct
, for each , there is with .
Then there exists an infinite
In this post, I will quickly address this “conjecture”. Thus, if you prefer to think about it by yourself, read no more.
Refutation. Consider the graph
So the underlying graph is just a complete bipartite graph ….
that’s right!